Do you lay down JJ here?

[Russ]

It's a set.

I recall a drive home from Waikerie after Matt and Krunchies poker day when benny the cunt became involved in a discussion about the difference between a set and trips.


Gareth - "its trips"
benny the cunt - "its not c*%$, its a set"
Gareth - "they're the same thing"




and then the fun truly began.

[Brett Kay]

Meh. Both are 3 of a kind. LOL

[AceLosesKing]

It's a set.

I recall a drive home from Waikerie after Matt and Krunchies poker day when benny the cunt became involved in a discussion about the difference between a set and trips.


Gareth - "its trips"
benny the cunt - "its not c*%$, its a set"
Gareth - "they're the same thing"




and then the fun truly began.

lolz.

I linked him to David's exact post, with a tag for his name on Facebook as soon as I saw it

[bennymacca]

It's a set.

I recall a drive home from Waikerie after Matt and Krunchies poker day when benny the cunt became involved in a discussion about the difference between a set and trips.


Gareth - "its trips"
benny the cunt - "its not c*%$, its a set"
Gareth - "they're the same thing"




and then the fun truly began.

possibly the funnest full on argument i have had with gareth. btw, it has been going on ever since i met him. he thinks "set" is just some ghey redundant 2p2 speak, and i think it is called differently because of the different board texture that each of them have.

Sorry benny the cunt.. Don't understand.. "not even close"?

sorry, i mean that i dont think this is a tough decision, it is a clear fold.

think about what type of hands will get all in with you here.

the first is flushes. because of the action preflop, it is unlikely that someone will have two hearts that are both below a jack. as a result, if they have the flush already, the overwhelming majority of the time, you will be drawing just about dead.

the second is a set. against a set, you have around a 30% chance of winning - i.e we are assuming our heart is good in this case. even with this big assumption, we are only around 30%. not great.

the third type of hand we can come up against is an overpair. if someone has queens or kings or aces here, without any heart, then we are once again around 35% to win. if they have a heart to go along with their overpair, then we are around 10% to win. once again, the odds arent great.

the fourth type of hand we can come up against is the monster draw. these include hands like AQ or AK where they have the ace of hearts, or possibly a straight draw and a flush draw or a pair and a flush draw. a hand like AK with a single heart is actually a favourite against our hand - typically 14 or 15 outs or so (ace or king or heart, for example is 15 outs, minus the heart we have in our hand makes 14.), which is about 55%, so it is basically a coin flip.

the fifth type of hand is the lower pair, i.e tens, a single pair of nines, or possible but unlikely, 88 or 66. against these hands we will have anywhere between 65 and 90% equity.

the last type of hand is a bluff, but this will happen not very often.



as you can see, i have just written a very long winded explanation.

but in general, you can see that we are either a coin flip, or we are significantly behind in this case. the key thing to recognise here is not the absolute strength of our own hand, but the strength of our hand against what the opponents might hold.

hope that makes sense to everyone, tell me if i have made a mistake.


so as you can see, just about every type o

[Gaz787]

possibly the funnest full on argument i have had with gareth. btw, it has been going on ever since i met him. he thinks "set" is just some ghey redundant 2p2 speak, and i think it is called differently because of the different board texture that each of them have.

Don't pervert my argument . The point of my side is that spergy pedantry contributes nothing to a discussion and serves little purpose in most contexts. It's not "ghey redundant 2p2 speak" it's "ghey pedantic 2p2 speak" and seems to be used as a means of lording knowledge over people, which is just downright retarded. I think that if a persons intended meaning is clear (and I mean crystal f%cking clear here, saying "I had A7 and I flopped a set of 7s", nobody that has half a brain is going "HURRR I DON'T KNOW WHAT YOU MEAN YOU CAN'T FLOP A SET THERE HURRRR") then such fervent insistence that the person describes it in a certain way just bogs down a strategy discussion in worthless semantics. Considering that a set and trips cannot coexist on a board (the set then becomes a full house. Please let me know if there is some variant of poker wherein this is not the case, as I'd be interested to hear it) if a person uses the terms interchangably to describe specific situations, there is no loss in clarity, ergo, the terms don't have any meaningful distinction in this context. "Oh but you play the two differently" - gee thanks Ivey, but this is obvious, and the purpose of a hand discussion is to discuss the merits of various plays in various situations - the purpose of the terms is to define the situation, which can be done with no loss of accuracy (except in the "I have aspergers and everyone must speak a certain way" pedantic sense) in a specific HH.

HOWEVER, COMMA, there is a reason to differentiate the two in incredibly GENERAL terms. If someone is describing a general poker situation, with no specific hand or board information (ie the statement "I flopped a set" with no context vs "I flopped trips" with no context) then there is reason to clarify as the situation becomes obfuscated.

Basically, my argument comes down to "being a pedant serves nobody, and I couldn't care less what term someone uses so long as I understand their meaning". Which is why I say they are, for all intents and purposes, interchangable in certain situations. Thankyou and goodnight.

[David]

I expected more from you Gareth.

[gmatical]

Poker is a bit of a magnet for pedantic peeps I have noticed.

[Origami]

possibly the funnest full on argument i have had with gareth. btw, it has been going on ever since i met him. he thinks "set" is just some ghey redundant 2p2 speak, and i think it is called differently because of the different board texture that each of them have.

Don't pervert my argument . The point of my side is that spergy pedantry contributes nothing to a discussion and serves little purpose in most contexts. It's not "ghey redundant 2p2 speak" it's "ghey pedantic 2p2 speak" and seems to be used as a means of lording knowledge over people, which is just downright retarded. I think that if a persons intended meaning is clear (and I mean crystal f%cking obfuscated.
clear here, saying "I had A7 and I flopped a set of 7s", nobody that has half a brain is going "HURRR I DON'T KNOW WHAT YOU MEAN YOU CAN'T FLOP A SET THERE HURRRR") then such fervent insistence that the person describes it in a certain way just bogs down a strategy discussion in worthless semantics. Considering that a set and trips cannot coexist on a board (the set then becomes a full house. Please let me know if there is some variant of poker wherein this is not the case, as I'd be interested to hear it) if a person uses the terms interchangably to describe specific situations, there is no loss in clarity, ergo, the terms don't have any meaningful distinction in this context. "Oh but you play the two differently" - gee thanks Ivey, but this is obvious, and the purpose of a hand discussion is to discuss the merits of various plays in various situations - the purpose of the terms is to define the situation, which can be done with no loss of accuracy (except in the "I have aspergers and everyone must speak a certain way" pedantic sense) in a specific HH.

HOWEVER, COMMA, there is a reason to differentiate the two in incredibly GENERAL terms. If someone is describing a general poker situation, with no specific hand or board information (ie the statement "I flopped a set" with no context vs "I flopped trips" with no context) then there is reason to clarify as the situation becomes obfuscated.

Basically, my argument comes down to "being a pedant serves nobody, and I couldn't care less what term someone uses so long as I understand their meaning". Which is why I say they are, for all intents and purposes, interchangable in certain situations. Thankyou and goodnight.

this...

obfuscated

Thankyou and goodnight

[Garth Kay]

possibly the funnest full on argument i have had with gareth. btw, it has been going on ever since i met him. he thinks "set" is just some ghey redundant 2p2 speak, and i think it is called differently because of the different board texture that each of them have.

Don't pervert my argument . The point of my side is that spergy pedantry contributes nothing to a discussion and serves little purpose in most contexts. It's not "ghey redundant 2p2 speak" it's "ghey pedantic 2p2 speak" and seems to be used as a means of lording knowledge over people, which is just downright retarded. I think that if a persons intended meaning is clear (and I mean crystal f%cking clear here, saying "I had A7 and I flopped a set of 7s", nobody that has half a brain is going "HURRR I DON'T KNOW WHAT YOU MEAN YOU CAN'T FLOP A SET THERE HURRRR") then such fervent insistence that the person describes it in a certain way just bogs down a strategy discussion in worthless semantics. Considering that a set and trips cannot coexist on a board (the set then becomes a full house. Please let me know if there is some variant of poker wherein this is not the case, as I'd be interested to hear it) if a person uses the terms interchangably to describe specific situations, there is no loss in clarity, ergo, the terms don't have any meaningful distinction in this context. "Oh but you play the two differently" - gee thanks Ivey, but this is obvious, and the purpose of a hand discussion is to discuss the merits of various plays in various situations - the purpose of the terms is to define the situation, which can be done with no loss of accuracy (except in the "I have aspergers and everyone must speak a certain way" pedantic sense) in a specific HH.

HOWEVER, COMMA, there is a reason to differentiate the two in incredibly GENERAL terms. If someone is describing a general poker situation, with no specific hand or board information (ie the statement "I flopped a set" with no context vs "I flopped trips" with no context) then there is reason to clarify as the situation becomes obfuscated.

Basically, my argument comes down to "being a pedant serves nobody, and I couldn't care less what term someone uses so long as I understand their meaning". Which is why I say they are, for all intents and purposes, interchangable in certain situations. Thankyou and goodnight.

My vote for POTY.

But there may be a requirement, for educational purposes, to intervene during discussions to disseminate this particular information (and subsequent associated terminologies) or it could lead to confusion in future discussions.

[bennymacca]

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ToOoJ5oAqbc